Test Questions

Parkinson's Disease

Exam Questions

1. The primary etiology of PD is a deficiency of:
    A. Acetylcholine
    B. Dopamine
    C. Norepinephrine
    D. Serotonin
2. Neuronal loss at the time of diagnosis of PD may be as high as:
    A. 5%
    B. 20%
    C. 80%
    D. 100%
3. The diagnosis of PD can be confirmed by a response to:
    A. Amantadine
    B. Levodopa
    C. Pramipexole
    D. Selegiline
4. The presence of which cardinal feature of PD would be unusual at diagnosis?
    A. Bradykinesia
    B. Postural instability
    C. Rigidity
    D. Tremor
5. An example of bradykinesia would be:
    A. Cogwheeling
    B. Falling
    C. Internal vibration
    D. Reduced facial expression
6. A minimum of how many cardinal features must be present to make a diagnosis of PD?
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
7. Commonly misdiagnosed as PD, essential tremor:
    A. Is usually absent at rest
    B. Is usually unilateral
    C. Is usually observed in the legs
    D. Usually coexists with bradykinesia
8. Which of the following medications should be suspected in drug-induced parkinsonism?
    A. Amantadine
    B. Apomorphine
    C. Entacapone
    D. Metoclopramide
9. The median age of onset of PSP is:
    A.

55 to 70 years
    B.

45 to 55 years
    C.

40 to 50 years
    D.

30 to 45 years
10. The drug most commonly implicated in causing dyskinesias is:
    A. Levodopa
    B. Pramipexole
    C. Rasagiline
    D. Ropinirole
11. Dyskinesia is believed to be associated with:
    A. Decreases in medication dose
    B. Pulsatile receptor stimulation
    C. Short cumulative drug exposure
    D. Trough drug concentrations in the nervous system
12. Which of the following agents prevents the peripheral conversion of levodopa to dopamine?
    A. Amantadine
    B. Carbidopa
    C. Entacapone
    D. Selegiline
13. Rasagiline and selegiline inhibit:
    A. Dopa decarboxylase
    B. Catechol-o-methyltransferase
    C. Monoamine oxidase type A
    D. Monoamine oxidase type B
14. Which of the following agents has activity useful for controlling dyskinesias?
    A. Amantadine
    B. Levodopa
    C. Pramipexole
    D. Rotigotine
15. Which of the following is not a classic side effect associated with anticholinergic drug administration?
    A. Dry mouth
    B. Orthostatic hypotension
    C. Tachycardia
    D. Urinary incontinence
16. Beta-CIT SPECT imaging:
    A. Is useful for diagnosing PD
    B. Has shown transporter loss correlates with UPDRS scores
    C. Has shown levodopa to be definitively neuroprotective
    D. Is a surrogate marker for disease progression
17. The DATATOP trial:
    A. Suggested that selegiline delays the need for levodopa
    B. Demonstrated selegiline's superiority over levodopa with regard to mortality
    C. Demonstrated that selegiline preserved functional ability over time compared with levodopa
    D. Was a delayed-start trial
18. According to the results of the ADAGIO trial:
    A. Early rasagiline administration resulted in better UPDRS scores at 72 weeks compared with delayed administration
    B. Rasagiline is superior to placebo with regard to UPDRS scores
    C. Rasagiline appears to have disease-modifying capabilities
    D. All of the answers are correct.
19. Depression:
    A. Always precedes dementia in patients with PD
    B. Is undertreated in patients with PD
    C. Is associated with symptoms distinct from those associated with PD
    D. Rarely precedes the diagnosis of PD
20. Which of the following may be considered to be a reason for early treatment of patients with PD?
    A.

Maintaining QOL
    B.

Some medications may have disease-modifying potential.
    C.

Studies suggest progression to be more rapid at diagnosis.
    D.

All of the answers are correct.

Evaluation Questions

21. To what extent did the program meet objective #1?*
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
22. To what extent did the program meet objective #2?*
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
23. To what extent did the program meet objective #3?*
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
24. To what extent did the program meet objective #4?*
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
25. To what extent did the program meet objective #5?
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
    F. N/A for pharmacy technicians
26. Rate the effectiveness of how well the program avoided commercial bias/influence:
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
27. Rate the effectiveness of how well the program related to your practice needs:
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
28. Rate the effectiveness of how well the program will help you improve patient care:
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
29. Rate the overall quality of the program:
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
30. Rate the overall user friendliness of the program:
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
31. Comments on this activity:
 
* Also applies to pharmacy technicians