Test Questions

Herpes Zoster (Shingles) and Postherpetic Neuralgia Mangement

Exam Questions

1. Herpes zoster infections often result from which of the following?
    A. Reactivation of mumps virus
    B. Reactivation of rubella virus
    C. Reactivation of varicella zoster virus
    D. Reactivation of the measles virus
2. Varicella virus mostly affects which of the following persons?
    A. Young children
    B. Newborns
    C. 40-year-old men
    D. Postmenopausal women
3. What percentage of people above 60 years are affected by shingles?
    A. 20%
    B. 40%
    C. 60%
    D. 80%
4. Which of the following symptoms are present in the early stage of shingles?
    A. Headache
    B. Rash
    C. Pain
    D. A and C
5. The primary complaint of patients during the active stage of shingles for which medical care is sought is:
    A. Headache
    B. Pain
    C. Fever
    D. Diarrhea
6. While the shingles rash disappears in most patients, what percentage of patients with compromised immunity get cutaneous dissemination?
    A. 10%
    B. 25%
    C. 37%
    D. 45%
7. The most common chronic complication of shingles is:
    A. Ocular conjunctivitis
    B. Postherpetic neuralgia (PHN)
    C. Meningitis
    D. Paralysis
8. All of the following will characterize the pain associated with PHN except:
    A. Excruciating
    B. Stabbing
    C. Dull
    D. Burning
9. Which of the following are the main objectives in the management of shingles?
    A. Treating the viral infection
    B. Treating any associated pain
    C. Preventing occurrence of chronic complications
    D. All of the above
10. Which of the following is considered a disadvantage of acyclovir use?
    A. 5-hour dosing frequency
    B. Low bioavailability
    C. Availability of intravenous dosage form
    D. A and B
11. Which of the following is not true of valacyclovir?
    A. It is the prodrug of acyclovir
    B. Parenteral dosage form is not available
    C. Valacyclovir appears more efficacious than acyclovir
    D. Oral valacyclovir produces comparable blood concentrations to parenteral acyclovir
12. All of the following are true for famciclovir except:
    A. It has a long half-life
    B. It is a prodrug
    C. It has better bioavailability compared to both acyclovir and valacyclovir
    D. It has been shown to significantly shorten the acute stage of shingles
13. Which of the following is not true of antiviral therapy?
    A. Therapy should start within 2 hours of onset of shingles for best clinical outcome
    B. Antivirals prevent the development of PHN
    C. Antiviral selection and dosing should be individualized
    D. Valcyclovir and famciclovir lessen the severity of PHN
14. What is the major drawback(s) of corticosteroid therapy for shingles?
    A. Corticosteroids have at best variable results
    B. Corticosteroids do not prevent the incidence of PHN
    C. Corticosteroids may cause further immunosuppression
    D. All of the above
15. Which of the following will you include in patient counseling for capsaicin?
    A. Apply to skin area affected after cleansing five times a day
    B. Wash hands thoroughly after application
    C. Expect burning sensation
    D. All of the above
16. The lidocaine patch has all of the following characteristics except:
    A. Ease of use
    B. Tolerability
    C. Minimal systemic adverse effects
    D. Efficaciousness
17. Which of the following adverse effects of amitriptyline may prevent its use in high-risk elderly patients?
    A. Sedation
    B. Cardiac conduction problem
    C. Blurred vision
    D. Dry mouth
18. Which anticonvulsant has a box warning for fatal dermatologic reactions?
    A. Carbamazepine
    B. Gabapentin
    C. Phenytoin
    D. Pregabalin
19. Which of the following is not a nonpharmacologic modality for managing PHN?
    A. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation
    B. Nerve block
    C. Biofeedback
    D. Electromyography
20. Which of the following is true of the shingles vaccine?
    A. It is recommended for persons 60 years and older
    B. It is a live attenuated virus
    C. It is indicated for the treatment of acute zoster
    D. A and B

Evaluation Questions

21. Met objective 1:*
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
22. Met objective 2:
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
    F. N/A for Pharmacy Technicians
23. Met objective 3:*
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
24. Met objective 4:
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
    F. N/A for Pharmacy Technicians
25. Related to your educational needs:
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
26. The active learning strategies (questions, cases, discussions) were appropriate and effective learning tools:
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
27. Avoided commercial bias:
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
28. How would you rate the overall usefulness of the material presented?
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
29. How would you rate the quality of the faculty?
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
30. How would you rate the appropriateness of the examination for this activity?
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
31. Comments on this activity:
 
* Also applies to pharmacy technicians