Test Questions

HIV: A Primer for Pharmacists

Exam Questions

1. Which of the following is not true of the CCR5 strain of HIV?
    A. It is the major coreceptor that infects macrophages
    B. It is responsible for most sexually transmitted infections
    C. It is the strain that is least often transmitted
    D. It is non–syncytium-inducing
2. Which step in the viral life cycle has made it difficult to find a cure for HIV?
    A. Fusion
    B. Reverse transcription
    C. Integration
    D. Maturation
3. Which of the following is not a means of transmission?
    A. Perinatal
    B. Casual contact
    C. Sexual
    D. Parenteral
4. If a person is diagnosed with a sexually transmitted disease (STD) three times in a year, how often should he or she be tested for HIV that year?
    A. After each diagnosis of an STD
    B. Once that year
    C. Every 6 months that year
    D. Every 3 months that year
5. How long does it take from time of initial exposure for the body to manufacture antibodies against HIV?
    A. 4 to 5 weeks
    B. 3 to 4 weeks
    C. 2 to 3 weeks
    D. 1 to 2 weeks
6. Which medication must be taken on an empty stomach?
    A. Enfuvirtide
    B. Raltegravir
    C. Ritonavir
    D. Efavirenz
7. Which protease inhibitor (PI) must be taken concurrently with ritonavir?
    A. Fosamprenavir
    B. Tenofovir
    C. Nelfinavir
    D. Both A and C
8. Which medication should not be given to treatment-naïve patients?
    A. Etavirine
    B. Maraviroc
    C. Tenofovir
    D. Tipranavir
9. Which antiretroviral medication cannot be taken by mouth?
    A. Enfuvirtide
    B. Nevirapine
    C. Tenofovir
    D. Etavirine
10. Which agent is the safest for a diabetic patient?
    A. Ritonavir
    B. Indinavir
    C. Enfuvirtide
    D. Tipranavir
11. Which drug can be safely given to a patient with a sulfa allergy?
    A. Tipranavir
    B. Darunavir
    C. Nelfinavir
    D. Amprenavir
12. Which regimen is inappropriate for a patient with a history of peptic ulcer being managed on omeprazole 40 mg/day?
    A. Zidovudine/lamivudine and nevirapine
    B. Tenofovir/emtricitabine and darunavir/ritonavir
    C. Tenofovir/emtricitabine and atazanavir/ritonavir
    D. Lamivudine/abacavir and efavirenz
13. What does not need to be considered when starting an antiretroviral therapy (ART) regimen?
    A. Lactose intolerance
    B. Chemical dependency
    C. Pregnancy status
    D. Potential drug interactions
14. Which of the following may not contribute to immunologic failure?
    A. Patient compliance
    B. Drug resistance
    C. The drugs' pharmacokinetics
    D. Duration of infection
15. Which adverse effect is not typical of PIs?
    A. Hyperlipidemia
    B. Fatal skin rashes
    C. Arthritis
    D. Clinical hepatitis
16. What should be the yearly increase of CD4 cells in an effective ART regimen?
    A. 50 to 150 cells/mm3
    B. 50 to 150 cells/cm3
    C. 150 to 300 cells/mm3
    D. 150 to 300 cells/cm3
17. Which class of drugs works in the late phase of the replication cycle?
    A. Integrase strand transfer inhibitor
    B. Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
    C. Entry inhibitor
    D. PIs
18. Which is the most appropriate agent for a patient with moderate-to-severe hepatic failure?
    A. Tipranavir
    B. Darunavir
    C. Nevirapine
    D. Enfuvirtide
19. Which of the following is not a major risk factor for contracting HIV?
    A. Injection-drug use
    B. Men having sex with men
    C. Heterosexual sex
    D. Being a nurse
20. Which of the following is not an indication for immediate initiation of ART?
    A. CD4 cell count <350 cells/mm3
    B. A history of multiple sex partners
    C. HIV-associated nephropathy
    D. An AIDS-defining illness

Evaluation Questions

21. Met objective 1:*
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
22. Met objective 2:*
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
23. Met objective 3:*
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
24. Met objective 4:*
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
25. Met objective 5:
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
    F. N/A for Pharmacy Technicians
26. Related to your educational needs:
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
27. The active learning strategies (questions, cases, discussions) were appropriate and effective learning tools:
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
28. Avoided commercial bias:
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
29. How would you rate the overall usefulness of the material presented?
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
30. How would you rate the quality of the faculty?
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
31. How would you rate the appropriateness of the examination for this activity?
    A. Excellent
    B. Very Good
    C. Good
    D. Fair
    E. Poor
32. Comments on this activity:
 
* Also applies to pharmacy technicians